I AM only a simple man and sometimes it takes me some time to understand the changes that occur in this great democracy of ours, take devolution for instance.
Why do the voters of Scotland and Wales have one more MP than us English?
I ask this question after hearing on the news that the Scottish Parliament and the Welsh assembly have both voted to abolish prescription charges.
Now I presume quite reasonably that Scottish MPs only voted this bill through in Scotland and Welsh MPs in Wales.
What happens if and when the same Bill is introduced in Westminster I presume (again)?
One more point, are the free prescriptions going to be subsidised by the Scots and Welsh taxpayers only or will it then become a British tax because if that happens it will really be rubbing the English taxpayers' noses in it?
JOHN SMITH (via email).
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